if a retailer or mail order guy lists an item that he buys wholesale from his/her sources, isn't it assumed that he has (the suppliers') authorization to sell it? why does it matter if the end client is a walk-in or a high bidder? and re my stuff: if i, (guys like me...), pre sell our time in the future, we are VERY dependent on our suppliers and hopeful that they'll have what we need when the order-to-build comes up. fwiw, i'm speaking in conceptual terms; my stocks are deep because i choose this route. but some builders may decide that 'just-in-time inventory' works better. either way, there are additional suppliers needed. e-RICHIE chester, ct
replying to : snipped: "Steve Neago" <questor@cinci.rr.com> writes: Gilbert and Richard, I think you are both missing the point...
As mentioned verbatum, the Ebay User Agreement Sec 5.1 says that the seller must have clear legal title or authorisation to sell from the owner any auction item on ebay.
Richard, you are the OEM manufacturer, so of course you can sell with the promise to later build - its your company and direct transaction with the consumer - no interim middleman supplier required.
Regards, Steve Neago
Cincinnati, OH